Analysis of Genesis 4:1

"I have gotten a man against the Lord"

There is one verse in the entire word that one seedliners rely on more than any other to justify their view that Cain was Adam's son. That verse is Gen 4:1.

And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.

They can't get past Eve (mind you) saying after she bear Cain that "I have gotten a man from the Lord".  (I have to laugh because it was Adam listening to Eve that got him in trouble in the first place!) Even when you try to explain that Eve had already conceived in Gen. 3:16, and that when she "knew Adam" she conceived again whereby her conception was multiplied, and how she gave birth to twins when she "again", which is yacaph in Hebrew meaning to continue, she continued in labor and bear his brother Abel" meaning she had twins, yes, even after you point this out, they still say, oh but Gen 4:1 says that she got a man "from the Lord".

Examining the Hebrew and Greek for this verse uncovers the truth hidden in this verse. The Hebrew text of Gen 4:1 is:
(Click on any item below for Concordance)   (Click)
And Adam Click to do Phrase Search on 'And Adam' [0120]   'adam  
knew   [03045]   yada` 8804: Qal Perfect
(with Strongs #)   [0853]   'eth  
Eve   [02332]   Chavvah  
his wife; Click to do Phrase Search on 'his wife' [0802]   'ishshah  
and she conceived, Click to do Phrase Search on 'and she conceived' [02029]   harah 8799: Qal Imperfect
and bare Click to do Phrase Search on 'and bare' [03205]   yalad 8799: Qal Imperfect
(with Strongs #)   [0853]   'eth  
Cain,   [07014]   Qayin  
and said, Click to do Phrase Search on 'and said' [0559]   'amar 8799: Qal Imperfect
I have gotten Click to do Phrase Search on 'I have gotten' [07069]   qanah 8804: Qal Perfect
a man Click to do Phrase Search on 'a man' [0376]   'iysh  
from   [0854]   'eth  
the LORD. Click to do Phrase Search on 'the LORD' [03068]   Y@hovah  

854 'eth ayth probably from 579; properly, nearness (used only as a preposition or an adverb), near; hence, generally, with, by, at, among, etc.:--against, among, before, by, for, from, in(-to), (out) of, with. Often with another prepositional prefix.
This verse could be read as saying "I have gotten a man AGAINST Y'hovah which would make a whole lot more sense!
The word 'eth (Strong's 0854) occurs 24 times in 24 verses.  Here are the other verses where 'eth is translated as "against" and not "from":
1Ki 16:22 But the people 05971 that followed 0310 Omri 06018 prevailed 02388 against 0854 the people 05971 that followed 0310 Tibni 08402 the son 01121 of Ginath 01527: so Tibni 08402 died 04191 , and Omri 06018 reigned 04427 .
1Ki 20:25 And number 04487 thee an army 02428, like the army 02428 that thou hast lost 05307 , horse 05483 for horse 05483, and chariot 07393 for chariot 07393: and we will fight 03898 against 0854 them in the plain 04334, [and] surely we shall be stronger 02388 than they. And he hearkened 08085 unto their voice 06963, and did so 06213 .
In looking at the Greek from the Septuagint, the words in this verse are:

The words translated in the Septuagint as "from God" are "ton theos".  Interestingly, in Rev. 13:6, the same words appear in the Textus Receptus but translated as "against God"! However there is a 'pros' before 'ton' and 'pros' is translated as against

The word 'eth is pivitol to the meaning of the verse. While the word itself arguably has no meaning, it has nevertheless been translated in various ways, one of which is 'against'. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that the translation of Gen. 4:1 could be "against the Lord" or "against God" instead of "from God" or "from the Lord". But even if you can't bring yourself to accept this translation and are committed to looking at this verse as saying "from the Lord", this too means that Cain didn't come from Adam but from the Lord. If it was a child from Adam, she would've said, 'I have gotten a man from Adam'. But we know that YHVH didnt father Cain, so what 'Lord" is Eve referring to? Did not the serpent tell Eve that if she ate of his fruit she would be like God or like Yahoveh? Was the serpent not representing himself as a 'god' or equal to Yahoveh? If this was the case then Eve was saying she got a man from Yahoveh meaning from the serpent. Notice too that in Gen 3, it states that "the Lord God (Y'hovah 'elohiym) said, or the Lord God did not say, or the Lord God asked, etc.  In Gen 4:1, it is simply " 'eth Y'hovah" (Lord) and not "Y'hovah 'elohiym"(Lord God). Consequently, Eve is not referring to the Lord God himself but possibly to some other Lord, otherwise she would've used the more formal title for Y'hoveh 'elohiym.

Finally, there is still one more way to look at this verse. Inasmuch as 'eth is a word that doesn't have a specific meaning but points to an object, the verse could even be translated as Eve stating, "I have gotten a man the Lord." Did Eve think that her child was a god since Satan told her they could be like gods if they ate of that fruit? Satan that serpent of old (Rev. 20:2) wanted to be like God and will exhalt himself as God. The serpents children would naturally do the same since they of of his nature. The offspring of Cain, who are the kenites, edomites, canaanites and khazars have in fact deceived the world into believing that they are the elect of God but any scholar of the word knows that they commit blasphemy, i.e., the blasphemy of those that say they are [Ioudaios] but are not but are of the synagogues of Satan. (Rev. 2:9 & 3:9) In this respect they are claiming to be gods because Christ told his disciples that they are gods ('elohiym). This is another study for another day so for now, I will leave you to ponder this and perhaps continue this thought later. But the bottom line is, there is very little in Gen 4:1 to say that Adam is the father of Cain.

Click here for another study on Genesis 4:1